To find the test that's right for you, click on a category below, or scroll down to see all tests.
On this page you will create your own "Panel" of tests (click on "Add To My Panel"). You can then review your "Custom Panel" (click on "View Order") before adding the tests to your shopping cart and purchasing.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); luteinizing hormone (LH); prolactin
Antimullerian Hormone is an important hormone in assessing a woman's ovaraian reserve or an estimate of the remaining eggs. This can be very useful for individuals attempting to undergo fertility treatment.
CA-125 is a substance produced by the fallopian tubes, the endometrium, and the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity). CA-125 is a helpful tumor marker for ovarian cancer. CA-125 levels may not rise above the normal range in all women who have ovarian cancer but if present, further testing through your health care provider is suggested.
This test is used to evaluate unbound (ionized) calcium. Calcium exists in serum in its ionized form or it is bound to organic anions such as phosphate and citrate,or in its most common form bound to proteins (mainly albumin). Of these, the ionized calcium is the physiologically important form. Ionized calcium is most useful clinically when trying to evaluate abnormally high or low serum calcium levels. Measurement of serum ionized calcium provides insight into the effect of total protein and albumin on serum calcium levels. This test is also useful in evaluating an individual that may have conditions that abnormally effect serum proteins. However Total Serum Calcium remains the first line test for evaluation of calcium abnormality. It should also be noted that women have greater circadian variation of ionized calcium than men.
Calcium is one of the most important minerals in your body. It is essential for the proper functioning of muscles, nerves, and the heart and is required in blood clotting and in formation of bones. About 99% of calcium is found in the bones while the remainder circulates in the blood. Morning, fasting sample is desired.
The basic chemistry panels used to determine overall health of a woman. No food for 12 hours prior to testing.
The Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP) is a group of 14 specific tests designed to provide an overview of the functioning status of our vital organs and body fluid. The CMP is a frequently ordered panel that gives you important information about the current status of your kidneys, liver, and electrolyte and acid/base balance as well as of your blood sugar and blood proteins. Abnormal results, or a combinations of abnormal results, can indicate a problem that needs to be addressed by you and your health care provider. Test Includes: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT/SGPT); albumin:globulin (A:G) ratio; albumin, serum; alkaline phosphatase, serum; aspartate aminotransferase (AST/SGOT); bilirubin, total; BUN; BUN:creatinine ratio; calcium, serum; carbon dioxide, total; chloride, serum; creatinine, serum; globulin, total; glucose, serum; potassium, serum; protein, total, serum; sodium, serum
Estradiol is the most active of endogenous estrogens. This test is of value when evaluating menstrual and fertility problems in adult females.
Estriol is one of the three major forms of estrogen. This is the major form produced during pregnancy, most of it in the placenta. These levels begin at about the 8th week pregnancy and continue to rise until shortly before delivery. Estriol levels are important in assessing what is going on with the fetus and placenta at any time. This test is used to evaluate fetal distress and placental function in the management of patients facing complications such as pre-eclampsia, fetal growth retardation, diabetes, Rh immunization, choriocarcinoma, and hydatidiform mole.
Evaluate for ovarian estrogen producing tumor in the premenarcheal and postmenopausal female; evaluate estrogen excess in males. Estrogen analysis may be helpful in establishing time of ovulation and optimal time for conception. Serial samples must be collected over several days to evaluate baseline and peak total estrogen levels.
Estrone is a form of Estrogen. It is the major form that is produced following menopause. Adipose tissue (fat) is commonly where estrone is produced. This test is used to evaluate postmenopausal vaginal bleeding due to peripheral conversion of androgenic steroids. Increased estrone levels may be associated with increased levels of circulating androgens and their subsequent peripheral conversion.
The PLAC© test is a proprietary test used to selectively screen for risk factors for coronary artery disease and cerebral vascular disease associated with atherosclerosis.
Luteinizing hormone (LH) is produced by the pituitary gland. Along with other hormones (follicle-stimulating hormone and estrogen), LH helps regulate the menstrual cycle in women and causes ovulation to occur. LH is usually measured in both a man and a woman to determine why the couple cannot achieve pregnancy (infertility).
This test is used primarily to evaluate magnesium deficiency. Magnesium deficiency produces neuromuscular disorders. It may cause weakness, tremors, tetany, and convulsions. Hypomagnesemia is associated with hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, long-term hyperalimentation, intravenous therapy, diabetes mellitus, especially during treatment of ketoacidosis; alcoholism and other types of malnutrition; malabsorption; hyperparathyroidism; dialysis; pregnancy; and hyperaldosteronism. Renal loss of magnesium occurs with cis-platinum chemotherapy. Magnesium deficiency is described with cardiac arrhythmias. The concept that magnesium deficiency may cause arrhythmias is of significant concern. Increased magnesium levels relate mostly to patients in renal failure. Marked increases may be found in such patients who take magnesium salts usually found in antacids which contain magnesium. High magnesium levels are manifested by decreased reflexes, somnolence, and heart block.
N-Telopeptide Cross-Links (NTx), Serum is used to monitor antiresorptive therapy with estrogen and calcium supplementation as well as drug therapy.
This test is used to measure potassium levels and determine if there is an electrolyte balance. Potassium is an important electrolyte that works to make sure there is enough fluid in the body, help with muscle contractions, and maintain an acid-base balance.
Quantitative hCG testing (also frequently called beta hCG), measures the actual amount of hCG present in the blood. It may be ordered to help diagnose an ectopic pregnancy, to help diagnose and monitor a pregnancy that may be failing, and or to monitor a woman after a miscarriage. In addition, a quantitative hCG test may be ordered to diagnose trophoblastic disease or germ cell tumors of the testes or ovary. It may be ordered at regular intervals to monitor the effectiveness of treatment for these conditions and to detect tumor recurrence. This test will show you your HCG levels only!
This test is valuable in the detection of ovulation. It can also be used to monitor progesterone replacement therapy and to evaluate the risk for early miscarriage.
This test is the primary test for the evaluation of galactorrhea (inappropriate lactation). Pituitary function test useful in the detection of prolactin secreting pituitary tumors (microadenomas, macroadenomas) with or without galactorrhea, with or without structural evidence of sellar enlargement. An adult female premenopausal patient having amenorrhea(no menses) and galactorrhea is highly suspect of pituitary prolactinoma and is a candidate for radiologic evaluation of the pituitary as well as serum prolactin levels. Elevated prolactin may be associated with corpus luteum insufficiency or anovulation. The associated results of hyperprolactinemia include amenorrhea(no menses), anovulation, and decreased bone density. Normal prolactin level does not rule out pituitary tumor. Prolactin secretion is episodic and is influenced by stress and by low glucose levels.
Testosterone is a hormone that is used to diagnose several conditions in men and women. Including, LH secretion and Leydig cell, evaluate gonadal and adrenal function, and fertility issues.
Vitamin D is a group of fat-soluble prohormones (meaning that it has no hormone activity itself). Vitamin D is converted to the active hormone 1,25-Dihydroxy through a tightly regulated synthesis mechanism. Vitamin D plays an important role in the maintenance of organ systems. Vitamin D regulates the calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood by promoting their absorption from food in the intestines, and by promoting re-absorption of calcium in the kidneys. It promotes bone formation and mineralization and is essential in the development of an intact and strong skeleton. Although, at very high levels it will promote the resorption of bone. Vitamin D also inhibits parathyroid hormone secretion from the parathyroid gland.
The basic chemistry panels used to determine overall health of a male. No food for 12 hours prior to testing.
Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA) is a sex hormone (androgen) created in the adrenal gland. It plays a role in developing male secondary sexual characteristics at puberty and it can be metabolized by the body into more potent androgens such as testosterone. Elevated levels may be found in the adrenogenital syndrome or adrenocortical neoplasms or hyperplasias. In females, DHEA excess causes masculinization. Increased DHEA with normal testosterone provides evidence for an adrenal cause of excessive androgen.
The Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) test measures the level of DHT in the blood. DHT is naturally occurring androgen and aids in the development of the prostate and male gentalia. A significant deviation from the normal range may require further evaluation by your physician. Includes: Dihydrotestosterone (DHT), serum.
Somatomedin-C is a hormone produced by the liver and other tissues, with effect on growth promoting activity and glucose metabolism (insulin-like activity). When people take Human Growth Hormone, their IGF-1 levels increase.
This test is used to detect Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA). PSA is a protein produced only by the prostate gland. The prostate gland is a doughnut-shaped gland located in a man's pelvis in the small space between the base of the penis and the bladder. The prostate makes the fluid that nourishes sperm and carries sperm during ejaculation. The amount of PSA produced by the prostate gland can be helpful in detecting prostate cancer. This test is commonly used with the digital rectal exam to screen for prostate cancer. If you have prostate cancer a PSA can be an important tool used to follow the response to treatment for the cancer. In general, serum PSA levels increase due to physical changes to prostate architecture caused by trauma, infection, inflammation, prostate manipulation, benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) or malignancy. This test measures the percentage of free (uncomplexed) PSA relative to the total amount of PSA in men with serum PSA concentrations between 4.0-10.0 ng/mL. Alternatively, percent free PSA may be used to determine the relative risk of prostate cancer in individual men.
A semen analysis is one of the tests used as part of a fertility evaluation in a man. It is also a test that is used to evaluate the effectiveness of a surgical vasectomy. This analysis evaluates the characteristics of the semen as well as an evaluation of the sperm contained in the semen. 2 to 7 days of sexual abstinence is recommended prior to testing. Please call for lab location before ordering.1-888-438-5227
SHBG and testosterone levels may be ordered for an adult male to help determine the cause of infertility, a decreased sex drive, and erectile dysfunction, especially when total testosterone results are inconsistent with clinical signs. In women, SHBG and testosterone testing may be useful in helping to detect and evaluate excess testosterone production and/or decreased SHBG concentrations. The concentration of testosterone in the various free and bound forms is essentially a function of total testosterone concentration and the relative concentrations of SHBG and albumin. Therefore it can be predicted that increased SHBG will decrease the concentration of both free and bioavailable testosterone for a given total testosterone concentration.
Testosterone is a male hormone (androgen) that affects sexual features and development. It is produced in large amounts by the testicles. The level of testosterone continues to rise during adulthood until it peaks around age 40, then it gradually decreases. Total testosterone levels in women decrease by approximately 30% after menopause. The most accurate level is best achieved if measured at 8 c'clock in the morning.
This test is intended for use as an aid in the management of individuals following surgical or medical treatment of prostate cancer. Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced only by the prostate gland. The prostate gland is a doughnut-shaped gland located in a man's pelvis in the small space between the base of the penis and the bladder. The prostate makes the fluid that nourishes sperm and carries sperm during ejaculation. The amount of PSA produced by the prostate gland can be helpful in detecting prostate cancer very early. If you have prostate cancer.PSA is an important tool for following the progress of the cancer.
This specific assay is used to confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Antibodies to DNA, either single- or double-stranded, are found primarily in systemic lupus erythematosus, and are important, but not necessary or sufficient for diagnosing that condition. Such antibodies are present in 80% to 90% of SLE cases. They are also present in smaller fractions of patients with other rheumatic disorders, and in chronic active hepatitis, infectious mononucleosis, and biliary cirrhosis.
Anticardiolipin antibodies are often present in individuals with the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. Individuals with the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS) have an increased risk for stroke, myocardial infarction, venous thrombosis, thromboembolism, thrombocytopenia, and/or recurrent miscarriages. APS can be diagnosed with no underlying autoimmune disorder or it can be secondary to another autoimmune disorder.
This test is used to detect antibodies associated with SLE and mixed connective tissue disease. Anti-Sm is highly specific for SLE. Anti-RNP is found with a variety of rheumatoid diseases with high titers associated mainly with Mixed Connective Disorder.
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies exhibiting pANCA or cANCA patterns are detected using indirect immunofluorescent antibody (IFA) techniques with a substrate of ethanol-fixed human neutrophils. Positive patient sera with perinuclear or nuclear patterns are repeated using a formalin-fixed substrate in order to differentiate the presence of true pANCA antibodies from possible interference with antinuclear antibodies (ANA).
The ANA test is used to help screen for autoimmune disorders and is most often used as one of the tests to diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Depending on the patient's symptoms and the suspected diagnosis, ANA may be ordered along with one or more other autoantibody tests. Other laboratory tests associated with presence of inflammation, such as erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and/or C-reactive protein (CRP) may also be ordered. ANA may be followed by additional tests that are considered subsets of the general ANA test and that are used in conjunction with the patient's clinical history to help rule out a diagnosis of other autoimmune disorders.
This test is used to detect autoimmune mediated causes of thyroid disease. This can include thyroiditis and Hashimoto thyroiditis.
The ASO titre evaluates symptoms that may be due to an illness caused by a previous streptococcal infection. It measures the number of antibodies present in the system.
This assay is intended to be used as an aid to the diagnosis of Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough) and Bordetella parapertussis (whooping cough-like syndrome).The target for the B pertussis PCR reaction, a region of IS481, is also found in Bordetella holmesii. A false-positive result for B pertussis DNA may occur if B holmesii is present in the sample tested.
This test includes:Deamidated gliadin IgA; tissue transglutaminase IgA; serum IgA quantitation. This test aids in the diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathies.Celiac disease is a gluten enteropathy occurring in both children and adults. The disease is probably underdiagnosed in that it may affect as much as 1% of the population in the United States. The condition is characterized by a sensitivity to gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) that causes inflammation and atrophy of the villi of the small intestine, malabsorption, etc. This sensitivity to gluten may also be seen in dermatitis herpetiformis. Strict avoidance of gluten in the diet will control disease activity, and antibodies to serum markers will disappear with time.
This test includes:Deamidated gliadin IgA; deamidated gliadin IgG; tissue transglutaminase IgA; tissue transglutaminase IgG; serum IgA quantitation. This test Aids in the diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathies.Celiac disease is a gluten enteropathy occurring in both children and adults. The disease is probably underdiagnosed in that it may affect as much as 1% of the population in the United States. The condition is characterized by a sensitivity to gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) that causes inflammation and atrophy of the villi of the small intestine, malabsorption, etc. This sensitivity to gluten may also be seen in dermatitis herpetiformis. Strict avoidance of gluten in the diet will control disease activity, and antibodies to serum markers will disappear with time.
This test includes:Deamidated gliadin antibodies; endomysial antibodies; tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibodies; total IgA.This test aids in the diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathies.Celiac disease is a gluten enteropathy occurring in both children and adults. The disease is probably underdiagnosed in that it may affect as much as 1% of the population in the United States. The condition is characterized by a sensitivity to gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) that causes inflammation and atrophy of the villi of the small intestine, malabsorption, etc. This sensitivity to gluten may also be seen in dermatitis herpetiformis. Strict avoidance of gluten in the diet will control disease activity, and antibodies to serum markers will disappear with time.
HLA DQ2 and DQ8 are statistically associated with celiac disease and are sometimes used as a test in support of that diagnosis.
Aid in the diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathies.Celiac disease is a gluten enteropathy occurring in both children and adults. The disease is probably underdiagnosed in that it may affect as much as 1% of the population in the US. The condition is characterized by a sensitivity to gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) that causes inflammation and atrophy of the villi of the small intestine, malabsorption, etc. This sensitivity to gluten may also be seen in dermatitis herpetiformis. Strict avoidance of gluten in the diet will control disease activity, and antibodies to serum markers will disappear with time.
This test is used to measure the level of serum Complement C4. C4 is used to detect individuals with inborn deficiency of this factor or those with immunologic disease in whom over activation of the immune system causes reduced levels of this complement factor. These diseases include lupus erythematosus, serum sickness, certain glomerulonephritides, chronic active hepatitis, and others. C4 is used only by the classical pathway, so that it is decreased only when this arm is activated. In diseases activating the alternate pathway alone, C4 levels will be normal. Total hemolytic activity (CH50), C3, and C4 are frequently decreased in a variety of conditions producing immune complexes. C4 levels are sensitive indicators of lupus disease activity.
This test is used to measure the levels of all Total Complement. CH50 can be used to assess the integrity of the classical pathway of the immune system. A normal CH50 level indicates that all the components of the C1 through C9 are present; however, even in the presence of a normal CH50, the absolute levels of some complement components (eg, C3 or C4) can be significantly (50% to 80%) lower than normal without affecting CH50 activity. This is because normal serum contains C3 and C4 in substantial excess of that required to yield a normal result for CH50. Depletion of alternative factors is not detected. For this reason, it may be necessary to measure individual complement components. The most common use of CH50 is to Evaluate and follow up SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus) patient's response to therapy; may predict disease flare in SLE; evaluate for complement component deficiency; evaluate complement activity in cases of immune complex disease, glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, SBE, cryoglobulinemia. The CH50 assay mainly evaluates the classical pathway.
Aid in the diagnosis of EBV infection (infectious mononucleosis).
Differential diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis
Aid in the diagnosis of acute EBV infection (infectious mononucleosis).
The sedimentation rate (sed rate) measures how quickly red blood cells (erythrocytes) settle in a test tube. The more red cells that fall to the bottom of a special test tube in one hour, the higher the sed rate. When inflammation is present in the body, certain proteins cause red blood cells to stick together and fall more quickly than normal to the bottom of the tube. These proteins are produced by the liver and the immune system under many abnormal conditions such as an infection, an autoimmune disease and cancer.
Detection of Leiden (R506Q) mutation in factor V gene (OMIM 227400), causing increased risk of thrombosis.This test detects the factor V R506Q (Leiden) mutation and will help identify those individuals who are at increased risk of thrombosis; however, increased risk of thrombosis can be caused by a variety of genetic and nongenetic factors not screened for by this assay.
Diagnosis of homozygous and heterozygous fibrinogen deficiency as well as dysfibrinogenemia; diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation; fibrinogen levels can be used to assess the effectiveness of thrombolytic therapy. Fibrinogen is an acute-phase reactant and can often become significantly increased in conditions involving tissue damage, infection, or inflammation. Increased levels may be seen in smokers, during pregnancy, and in women taking oral contraceptives. Fibrinogen levels can be diminished in advanced liver disease. Very high levels of heparin, presence of direct thrombin inhibitors, or fibrin breakdown products may falsely reduce fibrinogen levels because they interfere with the rate of clot formation. Lipemia or hemolysis may interfere with this assay.
This test is used to evaluate spondyloarthritis and other disorders associated with the HLA-B27 antigen. HLA-B27 is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis (Marie-Strumpell disease). HLA-B27 shares homology with a Klebsiella protein and may imply a bacterial pathogenesis to ankylosing spondylitis. A patient with consistent clinical and radiographic findings who is B27-positive has a greater chance of having or developing ankylosing spondylitis than a negative patient. The antigen is not causative, however, and 10% of normal subjects are B27-positive. This test should not be considered a screening procedure for ankylosing spondylitis. The antigen is less strongly associated with Reiter syndrome and other arthritides than with ankylosing spondylitis. It has been linked with congenital deficiency of C4 and C2, and with adrenal hyperplasia.
This test is used to study individuals with recurrent bacterial infections or allergy. However there are limitations to this procedure. This procedure is not suitable for the measurement of samples containing rheumatoid factor, paraproteins, other circulating immune complexes (CICs), or for lipemic or hemolyzed samples due to the unpredictable degree of nonspecific light scatter these sample types may generate. The results obtained from measuring IgG subclasses should not be used in assessing atopy in allergic individuals.
This test is used to help monitor and diagnose multiple myeloma or any condition where protein production is affected. A principal use of this test is in the detection of monoclonal gammopathies. These are usually found in association with hemic neoplasms, especially multiple myeloma. They also occur in other benign and malignant conditions.
The RA Factor test is primarily used to help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and to distinguish it from other forms of arthritis and other conditions that cause similar symptoms of joint pain, inflammation, and stiffness.
Serotonin may be measured to confirm the diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome. The carcinoid syndrome is usually caused by primary carcinoids of the ileum, but the syndrome is occasionally caused by primary carcinoids of the stomach. Other organs give rise to carcinoids including pancreas, duodenum, bronchus, and ovary. Most patients with the carcinoid syndrome have hepatic metastases.
This test aids in the diagnosis of Sjögren syndrome (especially with vasculitis) and lupus patients with Sjögren overlap syndrome.
Uric acid is a waste product formed by the breakdown of certain types of amino acids called purines. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Uric acid is also produced by the breakdown of the body's cells. If excess uric acid is being produced or if the kidneys are not able to remove it from the blood normally, the level of uric acid in the blood increases. High levels of uric acid in the blood can cause the excess uric acid to be deposited in the body's joints, leading to a form of arthritis called gout. Fast for at least 4 hours prior to testing.
This test is used to detect tumors that mark cancers of the liver, testes, and ovaries. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a substance naturally produced by the liver of a fetus. Normally, low levels of AFP can be found in the blood of a pregnant woman. No AFP (or only a very low level) is usually found in the blood of healthy men or healthy, nonpregnant women. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a substance naturally produced by the liver of a fetus. Normally.low levels of AFP can be found in the blood of a pregnant woman. No AFP (or only a very low level) is usually found in the blood of healthy men or healthy, nonpregnant women.
Manage patients with metastatic carcinoma of the breast.CA 27.29 is a highly polymorphic glycoprotein belonging to the mucin family and is the product of the muc-1 gene. It is most useful using serial measurements to monitor both the course of disease and response to therapy because the direct correlation of changing levels of CA 27.29 with clinical status. In patients with known metastases, a reduction in levels of this marker indicates a good response to treatment while increasing levels indicate resistance to therapy and progressive disease and justify further clinical evaluation and regular monitoring. It has also recently been shown that an elevation of CA 27.29 levels above the upper limit of normal in patients with no clinical evidence of disease is an early indicator of recurrence. An elevated serum CA 27.29 level in patients in remission of stage II or III breast cancer provided a positive predictive value of 83.3% for recurrent disease, with an average lead time of 5.3 months before recurrence was clinically established.
IFOBT- This test is used to screen for colorectal cancer, diverticulitis, colitis, polyps, and adenomas. This test is performed in the privacy of your own home, you just need to pick up the FOBT kit from the nearest LabCorp Patient Service Center.
LASA is a useful adjunct in the management of a variety of malignancies. It is generally used with the combination with other tumor markers. Preliminary studies have demonstrated that LASA concentrations are indicative of disease status in patients with leukemia, lymphoma, or cancer of the breast, ovary or colorectum.
This test is used to assess tumor progression and prognosis. The procedure may be considered investigational and, therefore, should be discussed with your health care provider as it relates to ones own individual clinical situation.
Glucose is a simple sugar that serves as the main source of energy for the body. Most of the body’s cells require glucose for energy production; brain and nervous system cells not only rely on glucose for energy, they can only function when glucose levels in the blood remain above a certain level. Fast for 12 hours prior to testing.
The Hemoglobin A1c test is used by diabetics to show how well controlled your blood sugar is during the preceding 3-month period. This Hemoglobin A1c also includes the estimated average glucose. How does the test remember whether your blood sugar was high 3 months ago? Red blood cells live about 3 months before they die off and are replaced by new ones. During their life span, they carry glycated hemoglobin with them. By measuring the amount of Hemoglobin A1c you will then get an average of what the blood sugar has been over that period of time. The higher the Hemoglobin A1c the higher the average blood sugar. The higher the Hemoglobin A1c the more chances you will experience complications with your disease. This test can also serve as warning sign that you may be diabetic if you do not already have the disease.
Microalbumin by Random Urine is a test used to measure the albumin levels found in urine. The most common form of testing urine is by the less sensitive dipstick method. Albumin is a common protein excreted by a damaged kidney. By measuring the Urine Microalbumin an individual can detect this early marker for the kidney disease commonly associated with Diabetes Mellitus. With early detection medical intervention can be initiated to help avoid or delay this very serious problem.
Description:Acid anhydrides are strong respiratory irritants known to produce hypersensitivity pulmonary disease, often beginning as hypersensitivity pneumonitis Test includes:Phthalic anhydride-specific IgE; trimellitic anhydride-specific IgE
This panel is used to detect possible IgE-mediated responses to various foods. The foods included are beef; chocolate; corn; egg (whole); shell fish; cow's milk; peanut; pork; soybean and wheat. IGE
This test includes testing for the following foods:Banana, Corn, Orange, Potato, White , Strawberry , Baker’s Yeast, Barley, Egg ,Green Pea ,Rice, Tomato, Kidney Bean, Milk, Peanut, Rye, Wheat, Chocolate, Oat, Pork, Soybean. IGE
This test includes testing for the following foods:Cheese ,Green Bean ,Rye, Chicken, Haddock, Shrimp, Chili Pepper, Lamb, Soybean, Chocolate, Oat, Sugar Cane, Coffee, Onion, Tomato, Corn, Peanut, Wheat, Cow's Milk, Pork ,Baker’s Yeast, Egg, White Potato, Brewer’s Yeast. IGE
This test includes testing for the following foods: Almond , Carrot, Crab, Lemon, White Potato, Tea, Apple, Cheese, Egg, Mushroom, Rice, Tomato, Banana ,Chicken, Garlic, Oat ,Rye, Tuna, Beef, Chili Pepper, Grape, Onion, Safflower, Turkey, Black Pepper, Chocolate, Green Bean, Orange, Shrimp , Vanilla, Broccoli, Coffee, Haddock, Oyster, Soybean, Wheat, Cabbage, Corn, Halibut, Peanut, Strawberry, Baker’s Yeast, Cantaloupe, Cow's Milk, Lamb, Pork, Sugar Cane, Brewer’s Yeast. IGE
This test includes testing for the following foods: Almond, Carrot, Cucumber ,Mustard, Pork, Strawberry, Apple, Cauliflower, Egg, Nutmeg, Sweet Potato, Sugar Cane, Apricot, Celery, Eggplant, Oat, White Potato, Sunflower, Artichoke, Cheese, Flounder, Olive, Radish, Tangerine, Asparagus, Cherry, Garlic, Onion, Rice, Tea, Banana, Chicken, Ginger, Orange, Rye, Tomato, Barley, Chili Pepper, Grape, Oregano, Safflower, Trout, Green Bean, Cinnamon, Grapefruit, Oyster, Sage, Tuna , Kidney Bean, Clam, Haddock, Green Pad, Salmon, Turkey, Pinto Bean, Clove, Halibut Peach, Scallops, Vanilla, Beef, Chocolate, Lamb, Peanut, Sesame, Watermelon, Blueberry, Cod, Lemon, Pear, Shrimp, Wheat, Broccoli, Coffee, lettuce, Black Pepper, Snapper, Whitefish, Brussels Sprouts, Corn ,Lime, Green Pepper, Sole, Baker’s Yeast, Cabbage, Cow's Milk, Lobster, Pineapple, Soybean, Brewer’s Yeast, Cantaloupe, Crab, Mushroom, Plum, Spinach and Zucchini. IGE
State includes: Alaska. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; American hazelnut; Aspergillus fumigatus; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; ragweed, short; redwood; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; timothy; walnut; white birch; white oak
States include: Arizona, Southeastern California, Southwestern Texas, and Western New Mexico. Allergens include: Acacia; Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; eucalyptus; iodine bush; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; nettle; olive; pecan; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; rabbit bush; ragweed, western; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; white mulberry; white oak; wingscale
States include: Arkansas, Eastern New Mexico, Northern Louisiana, Oklahoma, and Texas. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; mesquite; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sweet gum; white ash; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak; wingscale
States include: Central Oregon, Eastern Washington, Northeastern California, Northeastern Idaho, and Western Montana. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; Russian thistle; salt bush; sheep sorrel; spruce; Stemphylium botryosum; white oak; wormwood
States include: Coastal Alabama, Louisiana, Texas, Mississippi; Northern Florida; and Southern Georgia. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sweet gum; sycamore; timothy; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
State includes: Costal California. Allergens include: Acacia; Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; eucalyptus; Mucor racemosus; nettle; olive; pecan; Penicillium notatum; perennial rye; pigweed, rough; ragweed, western; Russian thistle; salt bush; smooth broome; Stemphylium botryosum; walnut; western sycamore; white birch; white mulberry; white oak
States of Coastal OR, WA; and Northern CA. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; redwood; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; walnut; white birch; white oak
States include: Delaware, Maryland, New Jersey; Coastal Florida, Georgia, North Carolina, South Carolina, and Virginia. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sweet gum; sycamore; timothy; white birch; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States include Eastern Colorado, Kansas, Nebraska, North Dakota, and South Dakota. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; walnut; white ash; white mulberry; white oak; wormwood
States include: Eastern Montana, Western Colorado, and Wyoming. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; walnut; white ash; white mulberry; white oak; wormwood
States include: Eastern Oregon, Nevada, Southeastern Washington, Southern Idaho, and Utah. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; spruce; Stemphylium botryosum; white birch; white oak; wingscale; wormwood; yellow dock
This panel is used to detect an allergy to fire ants. This test uses the most sensitive method for detecting an IgE mediated allergic response.
States include: Hawaii. Allergens include: Acacia; Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; cocklebur; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; eucalyptus; Kentucky bluegrass; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; olive; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; queen palm; ragweed, slender; salt bush; Stemphylium botryosum; white mulberry
States include: Illinois, Iowa, Missouri, and Southwestern Minnesota. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States include: Indiana, Kentucky, Northern Alabama, Northern Georgia, Northern Mississippi, Ohio, and Tennessee. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; American hazelnut; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; locust; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sweet gum; sycamore; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States include: Michigan, Minnesota, and Wisconsin. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; spruce; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
State includes: Middle Florida. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Baccharis; Bahia grass; bayberry; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; coastal live oak; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; dog fennel; English plantain; eucalyptus; Johnson grass; lamb's quarters; mango; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; perennial rye; queen palm; ragweed, short; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; white mulberry
States include: North Carolina, Pennsylvania, South Carolina, Virginia, and West Virginia. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; locust; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; Stemphylium botryosum; white birch; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States include: Connecticut, Maine, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New York, Rhode Island, and Vermont. Allergens include: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; American hazelnut; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; white ash; white birch; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
This screening panel checks for a variety of substances in the environment, such as pollen, dust mites and animal hair that typically cause an allergic reaction. This panel is designed specifically for the Southeast United States.
This panel is used to detect an allergy to Bumblebee, honeybee, paper wasp, white face hornet, yellow hornet and yellow jacket. This test uses the most sensitive method for detecting an IgE mediated allergic response.
Alternaria tenuis; Aspergillus fumigatus; Aureobasidium pullulans; Candida albicans; Cladosporium herbarum; Epicoccum purpurascens; Fusarium moniliforme; Helminthosporium halodes; Hormodendrum hordei; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; Phoma betae; Stemphylium botryosum
Codfish; cow's milk; egg white; peanut; soybean; wheat.
Alternaria tenuis; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Dermatophagoides farinae (dust mite); Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus (dust mite); dog epithelia; elm; English plantain; Kentucky bluegrass (June grass); oak; ragweed, short
This test is a quantitative allergen-specific IgE test for Hog Epithelium.
This test measures levels of TDI, MDI, and HDI. TDI, MDI, and HDI are three of the most frequently used isocyanates in industry. The isocyanates are used primarily as starting materials for a variety of manufacturing processes, including the production of plastics, polyurethane, foams, and electrical wire insulation. Isocyanates are also common components of paints and other durable and protective finishes, adhesives, and elastomers in automobile bumpers, printing rolls, and coated fabrics. Exposure can occur at any stage from the initial manufacturer of the isocyanates to their final use in various production processes. Exposure can also occur from the application of paints and polyurethanes, from the handling and machining of foams, and from the combustion of these materials. Exposure to isocyanates may cause chemical bronchitis with initial symptoms of throat irritation, laryngitis, coughing, and chest pain or tightness. Asthma (with symptoms of wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath) may also follow exposure to isocyanates. Other effects associated with isocyanate exposure are hypersensitive pneumonitis, chronic pulmonary disease, and contact dermatitis (following direct skin contact).
Detect sensitivity to latex. Latex has been shown to cause sensitivity reactions. Hypersensitivity reactions following exposure to latex are rapidly increased, most notably in the past few years. Latex is emerging as a potentially serious health problem largely because of the frequency by which individuals come in contact with latex and products containing latex
Oxcarbazepine is an antiepileptic drug, indicated for use as monotherapy or adjunctive therapy in the treatment of partial seizures in adults with epilepsy. It is used in adjunctive therapy in epileptic children between the ages of four and 16.Oxcarbazepine is the prodrug for its active metabolite, 10-hydroxy-carbamazepine (MHD). MHD reaches maximal serum concentrations in three to five hours after oral ingestion and is 40% bound to protein. The elimination half-life is 8 to 15 hours. Co-administration of other antiepileptic drugs (eg, carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, primidone) causes decreases in MHD serum levels.
This screening test will check your urine for recent use of alcohol. This is only a check for recent consumption of alcohol and will not detect impairment.
A screen for recent use of amphetamine or methamphetamine.
Monitor chronic exposure to arsenic. Arsenic poisoning of a chronic nature is often evidenced by cardiovascular abnormalities and neurological disorders. Acute exposures to high concentrations of arsenic may be evidenced by the following signs and symptoms: •Gastrointestinal: Severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, bloody or rice-water diarrhea •Cardiovascular and respiratory: Hypotension, shock, ventricular arrhythmia, congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema •Neurologic: Lightheadedness, headache, weakness, lethargy, delirium, encephalopathy, convulsions, coma, sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy •Hepatic and renal: Elevated liver enzymes, hematuria, oliguria, proteinuria, acute tubular necrosis, renal cortical necrosis •Hematologic: Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, disseminated intravascular coagulation •Other: Rhabdomyolysis, garlic odor on breath, delayed appearance of Mees lines.Patient must avoid all seafood for 72 hours prior to collection. Seafood consumption two to three days prior to specimen collection can markedly elevate levels of total arsenic in urine. This dietary form of arsenic is nontoxic and is comprised primarily of arsenobetaine and arsenocholine. Inorganic arsenic is used for industrial exposure monitoring.
Monitor recent or acute exposure to arsenic.Blood levels of arsenic have a short half-life and are useful only for monitoring recent or acute exposure. Urine arsenic measurement is a better measure of arsenic poisoning. In addition to pesticides, rodenticides, weed killers, paint, and wood preservatives contain arsenic.
This screening test will check your urine for recent use of barbiturates. These drugs are Amobarbital, Butabutal, Pentobarbital, Phenobarbital and Secobarbital.
Barium is a naturally existing metal. Barium is used in spark plug electrodes as well as in fluorescent lamps. Barium compounds are used to make paint, bricks, tiles, glass and rubber. Those with the greatest risk of exposure to barium are those that work in the barium industry. Hazardous waste sites may contain some amounts or barium and those that live near those areas could be exposed to harmful levels.
A screen for recent use of benzodiazapines. This category of drugs include chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and diazepam (Valium).
This test is often used by Periodontists and Oral Surgeons as a preoperative requirement prior to implant dentistry.It is also used for in vitro diagnostic use as an indicator of human bone resorption. This test may be used as an aid in monitoring bone resorption changes of antiresorptive therapies in postmenopausal women, individuals with osteopenia, and in predicting skeletal response (bone mineral density) in postmenopausal women undergoing antiresorptive therapies. • Hormone replacement therapies (HRT) with hormones and hormone-like drugs • Bisphosphonate therapies
Monitor recent or acute exposure to cadmium.Cadmium poisoning through industrial exposure to inorganic cadmium fumes may produce fatigue, coughing, chest pain, a burning sensation in the throat, and renal damage. The prognosis of persons with cadmium-induced renal dysfunction is unfavorable, with urinary ß-microglobulin and urinary protein the most important factors. Inhalation of cadmium fumes can lead to pneumonia with acute exposure and emphysema with chronic exposure.
This screening test will check your urine for recent use of marijuana.
This heterocyclic (iminostilbene) compound has potent antiepileptic properties and is effective alone or with other antiepileptic drugs in partial seizures, especially complex partial seizures, generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and combinations of these seizure types. Carbamazepine generally is ineffective for absence, myoclonic, and atonic seizures. In children with symptomatic generalized epilepsy and continuous spike-and-wave discharge, these seizure types may develop or tonic-clonic seizures may increase in frequency with use of carbamazepine. It has also been noted1 that the dose of carbamazepine cannot be used as a reliable index for predicting the serum concentration of either total or free carbamazepine serum concentrations in children with epilepsy. Comparative clinical trial data indicate that patients with partial seizures may tolerate carbamazepine better than phenobarbital and primidone, but individual responses vary. Many clinicians consider carbamazepine a drug of choice for initial therapy in idiopathic and symptomatic localization-related epilepsies, especially in children and women. This drug is increasingly preferred to phenobarbital in pediatric patients because it has less effect on cognition and behavior. It is reported to have psychotropic activity that may increase alertness and elevate mood in depressed epileptic patients, but not in otherwise normal patients. Mental improvements may be due to substitution of carbamazepine for sedative drugs, control of seizures, or a direct psychotropic effect.
This test will screen your urine for recent cocaine use.
Amphetamines; barbiturates; benzodiazepines; cannabinoids (marijuana); cocaine metabolite; opiates (codeine, morphine only); phencyclidine (PCP)
This test measures the amount of lithium in the blood. Lithium as lithium carbonate is used as a psychoactive agent in the treatment of manic depressive disorders. Lithium therapy demands daily monitoring of serum lithium levels until the proper dose schedule is determined. Abnormal high levels never occur suddenly. It takes several days to a week before full-blown symptoms develop, an individual will experience lethargy, drowsiness, tremor, muscle twitching, difficulty speaking, loss of appetite along with vomiting or diarrhea.
This test will screen your urine for recent use of methadone.
This test is used to measure nicotine and its metabolites to monitor success of smoking cessation programs, detect passive exposure, and evaluate nontobacco nicotine exposure.
This screening test will check your urine for recent use of opiates. These drugs include codeine or products containing codeine, heroin and/or morphine.
Phenobarbital, a long-acting barbiturate, is effective in generalized tonic-clonic and simple partial seizures. Higher plasma concentrations may be required to control the latter. Complex partial seizures do not respond as well, and absence seizures are not relieved and may be exacerbated. Phenobarbital frequently is used in the treatment of neonatal seizures and may be the initial drug employed in young children; however, because of increasing concern about adverse neuropsychological reactions to sedative/hypnotic antiepileptic drugs, many neurologists prefer less sedating drugs, such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, or valproate. The prophylactic use of phenobarbital in infants with febrile seizures has been challenged. Phenobarbital also is useful in seizures caused by barbiturate withdrawal in dependent individuals. The sodium salt is administered parenterally as part of the treatment regimen for status epilepticus.
This test is used to measure the drug level of Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is useful in generalized tonic-clonic, complex partial, and simple partial seizures and frequently is chosen for initial therapy, particularly in adults. This drug also may prevent seizures initially in high-risk patients with head trauma.
This screening panel is a urine test that will detect recent use of the 9 most common recreational drugs used in today's society. This list includes: amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cannabinoids (marijuana), cocaine, methadone, opiates, propoxyphene (darvon), and phencyclidine (PCP).
This screening panel is a blood test that will detect recent use of the 7 most common recreational drugs used in today's society. This list includes amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cannabinoids (marijuana), cocaine, opiates, and phencyclidine (PCP).
Valproate (valproic acid; divalproex sodium, a compound containing sodium valproate and valproic acid) controls absence, myoclonic, and tonic-clonic seizures in generalized, idiopathic, and symptomatic epilepsy. It is most useful in typical absence seizures. Valproate is as effective as ethosuximide in patients with absence seizures alone and is variably effective in atypical absence seizures. Valproate is an alternative drug in the treatment of complex partial seizures but may be considered for initial therapy in patients with partial and secondarily generalized seizures. Valproate is the drug of choice in myoclonic epilepsy, with or without generalized tonic-clonic seizures, including juvenile myoclonic epilepsy of Janz, that begins in adolescence or early adulthood.
Monitor patients for prior and ongoing exposure to aluminum. Patients at risk include: •Infants on parenteral fluids, particularly parenteral nutrition •Burn patients through administration of intravenous albumin, particularly with coexisting renal failure •Adult and pediatric patients with chronic renal failure who accumulate aluminum readily from medications and dialysate •Adult parenteral nutrition patients (less so, recently) •Patients with industrial exposure Monitor dialysate and water to prepare dialysate to prevent aluminum toxicity in dialysis patients.
This profile includes tests that are associated with anemia. Test includes: CBC with differential and platelet count; ferritin; folates (folic acid); iron; iron binding capacity; reticulocyte count; vitamin B12
The complete blood count or CBC test is used as a broad screening test to check for such disorders as anemia, infection, and many other diseases. This panel contains different tests that examine different parts of the blood. Included in this panel is a white blood cell count, white blood cell differential, red blood cell count, hemoglobin and hemocrit measurements and a platelet count. The CBC is a very common test. Many patients will have baseline CBC tests to help determine their general health status. If an individual is having symptoms such as fatigue or weakness or has an infection, inflammation, bruising, or bleeding, then a CBC can be helpful to diagnose the cause.
Monitor industrial exposure. This test is not intended to monitor chromium levels in diabetic patients or in patients with suspected chromium deficiencies.
Evaluate toxicity; monitor therapeutic levels.Clozapine is absorbed rapidly, with peak plasma concentrations occurring within 30 minutes to six hours. Terminal half-life in humans is in the range of 5.5 to 33 hours. Determination of clozapine in plasma is needed to correlate efficacy with plasma concentration. However, pharmacogenomics and co-administration of other agents can complicate the correlation between dose and plasma concentration. Changes in the activity of the cytochrome P450 mixed-function oxidases, especially CYP1A2 and CYP3A4 can affect clozapine levels. These oxidases can be induced by drugs such as carbamazepine, with the resulting increase in activity causing 50% decrease in clozapine concentration.
The Serum Copper is used to test for Wilson's disease. However, the test is used more frequently to monitor the nutritional supplementation of copper, especially when copper deficiency is indicated due to ongoing gastrointestinal losses. It is strongly recommended that a serum ceruloplasmin test be obtained at the same time in order to associate the results with the proper clinical situation. Fasting for 12-16 hours prior to testing.
This test is used to establish the diagnosis of adrenocortical insufficiency, Addison's disease, adrenocortical hypersecretion, Cushing's syndrome. Malfunction of the organs in the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal cortex axis will result in alteration of the cortisol levels.
This test is used to diagnose hypochromic, microcytic anemias. Ferritin levels are decreased in iron deficiency anemia and increased in iron overload. Ferritin levels correlate with and are useful in evaluation of total body storage iron. In hemochromatosis, both ferritin and iron saturation are increased. Ferritin levels in hemochromatosis may be >1000 ng/mL.
This test is used to detect folate deficiency. It is the red blood cell folate test. This test is commonly used to help diagnose anemia.
Folic acid (folate) is a form of the water-soluble Vitamin B9. Folic acid is necessary for the production and maintenance of new cells, which is especially important during periods of rapid cell division and growth such as infancy and pregnancy. Folate is needed to replicate DNA. Thus folate deficiency hinders DNA synthesis and cell division, affecting most clinically the bone marrow, a site of rapid cell turnover.
This test is used to determine the qualitative and quantitative variations in white blood cell numbers and morphology, the morphology of red blood cells and in addition platelet evaluation. This test is helpful to evaluate anemia, leukemia, infections, inflammatory states, and other conditions that affect blood cells. This test does not include a Complete Blood Count(CBC) or platelet count.
This test identifies the percentages of hemoglobins found in an individuals blood. This test is used to diagnose thalassemias and hemoglobin variants.
This test will test for iodine levels in the blood.
Serum iron measures the amount of iron in the blood to evaluate iron metabolism in the body. Iron (Fe) is a necessary mineral for the proper function of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. It is also needed for proper muscle and organ function. About three-fourths of the body's iron is bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells, while the rest is either bound to other proteins (transferrin in blood or ferritin in bone marrow) or stored in other body tissues. Iron deficiency in men and women past menopause usually is related to abnormal bleeding. Fasting, morning sample preferred.
This test is used to monitor exposure to lead. Lead and organic lead compounds have numerous commercial and industrial applications, including paints, plastics, storage batteries, bearing alloys, insecticides, and ceramics. Exposure may also occur through the inhalation of dust containing lead emitted by automobile exhaust. A common source of lead exposure among children is through the mouthing of inanimate objects, specifically objects with paint and paint chips that contain lead. Acute lead exposure is rare; however, toxicity may occur through acute ingestion of a lead salt or acetate. Blood is the preferred specimen by which the extent of an acute or recent exposure to lead may be measured. Early symptoms of lead poisoning include anorexia, apathy or irritability, fatigue, and anemia. Toxic effects include GI distress, joint pain, colic, headache, stupor, convulsions, and coma. Another test that may be used to evaluate lead intoxication is free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP); however, a blood lead assay is the definitive test.
Evaluate magnesium deficiency
This test is used to monitor exposure to mercury, primarily inorganic mercury. Monitor exposure to mercury (primarily inorganic mercury). Some organic forms of mercury, including phenylmercury, are metabolized to inorganic mercury; however, methylmercury and ethylmercury are not metabolized to inorganic mercury and the primary route of excretion is in the bile and stool; consequently, these alkylmercury compounds are usually not detected in urine. Test Includes: Mercury, urine; creatinine, urine; mercury:creatinine ratio
This test is used to diagnose megaloblastic anemia; elevated levels of methylmalonic acid provide an early indication of cobalamin (B12) deficiency.
This test is used for an evaluation of abnormal bleeding or excessive bruising. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test measures the functionality of the common pathways of the coagulation cascade. The aPTT is the length of time that it takes for clotting to occur in a test tube when reagents that are added to plasma. When the sample takes longer than normal to clot, the PTT is said to be “prolonged."
This test is used to detect the presence of an unbound antibody that may be associated with the destruction of platelets. This assay is not designed to detect antibodies associated with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), the most common drug-induced immune thrombocytopenia.
This platelet count is used to diagnose or follow up on bleeding disorders, or bone marrow diseases such as leukemia. Also used to evaluate response to platelet transfusion.
Vitamin B12 is a collection of molecules found in the body. Vitamin B12 is important for the normal functioning of the brain and nervous system and for the formation of blood. It is normally involved in the metabolism of every cell of the body, especially affecting the DNA synthesis and regulation but also fatty acid synthesis and energy production. A deficiency in B12 can also result in varying degrees of neuropathy, nerve damage that can cause tingling and numbness in the patient’s hands and feet. Fasting is preferred prior to testing.
This test is useful in assessing an individuals nutritional status or to evaluate the cause of anemia. Vitamin B12 is a collection of molecules found in the body. Vitamin B12 is important for the normal functioning of the brain and nervous system and for the formation of blood. It is normally involved in the metabolism of every cell of the body, especially affecting the DNA synthesis and regulation but also fatty acid synthesis and energy production. A deficiency in B12 can also result in varying degrees of neuropathy, nerve damage that can cause tingling and numbness in the patient’s hands and feet. Folic acid (folate) is a form of the water-soluble Vitamin B9. Folic acid is necessary for the production and maintenance of new cells, which is especially important during periods of rapid cell division and growth such as infancy and pregnancy. Folate is needed to replicate DNA. Thus folate deficiency hinders DNA synthesis and cell division, affecting most clinically the bone marrow, a site of rapid cell turnover. Fasting is preferred prior to testing.
Evaluate vitamin E deficiency in hemolytic disease in premature infants, and neuromuscular disease in infants (and adults) with chronic cholestasis; evaluate patients on long-term parenteral nutrition; patients with malignancy or malabsorption (eg, patients with cystic fibrosis, cases of intestinal bypass surgery); investigate brown-bowel syndrome.Vitamin E (a-tocopherol) is an antioxidant so widely distributed in foodstuffs that deficiency is very difficult to produce in human beings taking anything like a ”normal” diet. However, vitamin E is fat soluble, and malabsorption and deficiency may develop in cases of chronic intraluminal intestinal bile deficiency.
This test measures Apolipoprotein B or ApoB. LDL and its major protein, Apolipoprotein B, play an essential role in lipid transport and metabolism. ApoB may regulate cholesterol synthesis through its interaction with specific cell membrane receptors and by inhibition of HMG Co A reductase. This enzyme has been identified as the rate controlling enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis. Through a mechanism that is not fully understood, high levels of APOB can lead to plaques that cause vascular disease (atherosclerosis), leading to heart disease. There is considerable evidence that levels of ApoB are a better indicator of heart disease risk than total cholesterol or LDL. However, primarily for historic reasons, cholesterol, and more specifically, LDL-cholesterol, remains the primary lipid test for the risk factor of atherosclerosis
Support a diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF). B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP), also referred to as brain natriuretic peptide, is a member of a family of structurally similar peptide hormones that includes atrial natriuretic peptide.1 BNP is a 32-amino-acid peptide that contains a 17-amino-acid ring structure that is formed as the result of an internal disulfide bond. BNP is predominantly secreted by the ventricles of the heart in response to increased pressure. BNP acts as a vasodilator and has diuretic and natriuretic properties. BNP suppresses both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin system. These physiologic effects serve to reduce intraventricular pressure and improve the symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF).
The measurement of C-reactive protein(CRP), High Sensitivity may add to the predictive value of other markers used to assess the risk of cardiovascular and peripheral vascular disease. Increases in CRP values are nonspecific. CRP is an indicator for a wide range of disease processes and should not be interpreted without a complete clinical history. Recent medical events resulting in tissue injury, infections, or inflammation, which may cause elevated CRP levels, should also be considered when interpreting results. Serial analysis of CRP should not be used to monitor the effects of treatment.
CRP is an acute phase reactant, which can be used as a test for inflammatory diseases, infections, and neoplastic diseases. Progressive increases correlate with increases of inflammation/injury. CRP is a more sensitive, rapidly responding indicator than ESR. CRP may be used to detect early postoperative wound infection and to follow therapeutic response to anti-inflammatory agents. Recent reports have indicated that a highly sensitive version of the CRP assay may be used as an additional indicator for susceptibility to cardiac disease. CRP is a pentameric globulin with mobility near the ? zone. It is an acute phase reactant which rises rapidly, but nonspecifically in response to tissue injury and inflammation. It is particularly useful in detecting occult infections, acute appendicitis, particularly in leukemia and in postoperative patients. In uncomplicated postoperative recovery, CRP peaks on the third postop day, and returns to preop levels by day seven. It may also be helpful in evaluating extension or reinfarction after myocardial infarction, and in following response to therapy in rheumatic disorders. It may help to differentiate Crohn's disease (high CRP) from ulcerative colitis (low CRP), and rheumatoid arthritis (high CRP) from uncomplicated lupus (low CRP).
Homocysteine is an amino acid normally found in small amounts in the blood. However, high levels of homocysteine in the blood may promote plaque buildup in blood vessels that may, over time, lead to serious cardiovascular problems. High levels of homocysteine in the blood may be associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and subsequent coronary artery disease. Homocysteine levels can be elevated by other factors such as family history, age and gender. Homocysteine can be elevated by some medications and by chronic kidney disease.
Lipid panel measures total Cholesterol, HDL, LDL, triglycerides, and VLDL. High cholesterol is correlated with an increase risk of heart disease. Fast for 12-14 hours prior to testing.
A lipid panel usually measures 3 different kinds of lipids in the blood, all of which are related to a type of fat called cholesterol. The 3 kinds of lipids are LDL cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, and Triglycerides. The lipid panel also measures total cholesterol, which is the sum of all types of cholesterol in your blood. High levels of total cholesterol in your blood generally also increase your risk of heart disease. Because high cholesterol itself does not cause symptoms, you may not know that your cholesterol level is too high. Fast for 12-14 hours prior to testing.
The NMR(c) LipoProfile Test utilizes the latest testing technology, NMR (Nuclear Magnetic Resonance), for a thorough analysis of your cardiovascular risk. This test frequently reveals the presence of hidden but manageable lipid-related risk, which when treated diminishes the occurrence of cardiovascular events. Fast for 12-14 hours prior to testing.
Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver. The Hepatitis Profile detects hepatitis A (HAV), hepatitis B (HBV) and hepatitis C (HCV) infections. This comprehensive profile for HAV, HBV and HCV can be used to diagnose all stages of infection. It is important to identify the type of hepatitis virus causing infection so that the spread of infection can be prevented and the proper treatment can be determined.
Albumin is the most abundant protein in the blood plasma. It keeps fluid from leaking out of blood vessels; nourishes tissues; and transports hormones, vitamins, drugs, and ions like calcium throughout the body. Albumin is made in the liver and is extremely sensitive to liver damage.
Alkaline Phosphatase is an enzyme found in the liver. Alkaline Phosphatase is a hydrolase enzyme responsible for removing phosphate groups from many types of molecules, including nucleotides, proteins, and alkaloids.
Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) is an enzyme produced by the liver. AST was formerly known as Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase. AST has origins in many organs. When an increased AST is from the liver, it is more likely to relate to disease of the hepatocyte (liver cell).
The Serum Ceruloplasmin test is used for evaluation of chronic liver disease such as chronic active hepatitis and cirrhosis. This test is also used along with a serum copper level to aid in the diagnosis of Wilson's disease and other clinical conditions that are associated with a copper deficiency or excess.
This test is a measurement of the metal copper excreted in a 24 hour urine collection. Increased urinary copper excretion may occur in Wilson disease or with chronic active hepatitis; Wilson disease and chronic active hepatitis may resemble one another; thus, parameters in addition to urinary copper excretion, such as ceruloplasmin and serum copper, are needed to fully evaluate and differentiate these conditions. Copper poisoning through chronic exposure is rare in the general population, excepting individuals with Wilson disease. Copper poisoning through chronic inhalation of copper fumes and/or dusts that are typically associated with industry may produce symptoms of nausea, vomiting, nervous manifestations, and an enlarged liver(hepatomegaly). Overexposure to copper is generally associated with industry through the inhalation of copper dust and/or fumes that arise in operations involving copper (eg, metallurgy, copper plating, soldering). This test is a 24 hour collection of urine. Therefore you must pick up collection container at your local Client Service Center. This address may be found by using our "Locator" map upon checkout. In order to collect a 24 Hour Urine specimen you begin by voiding(urinating) at 8am. This specimen is then discarded. Then begin to collect all urine including the final specimen voided at the end of the 24-hour collection period (ie, 8 AM the next morning). Make sure to screw the lid of the collecting container on securely and return it to the same Client Service Center.
Bilirubin circulates in the bloodstream in two forms: Indirect (or unconjugated) bilirubin. Indirect bilirubin does not dissolve in water and it travels through the bloodstream to the liver, where it is changed into a soluble form. After indirect bilirubin has been changed by the liver into a form that dissolves in water (soluble), it is called direct or conjugated bilirubin. Total bilirubin and direct bilirubin levels are measured directly in the blood, whereas indirect bilirubin levels are derived from the total and direct bilirubin measurements.
This biliary enzyme is especially useful in the diagnosis of obstructive jaundice, intrahepatic cholestasis, and pancreatitis. GGT is more responsive to biliary obstruction than aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (SGOT) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (SGPT). This enzyme is increased in hepatoma (liver cancer) and carcinoma of pancreas therefore it is also useful in the diagnosis of metastatic carcinoma in the liver. No food for 8 hours prior to testing.
This heavy Metal Profile is used to screen for exposure to arsenic, lead and mercury. Individuals who want accurate measures should avoid seafood and red wine 72 hours prior to collection
This test is used for the differential diagnosis of hepatitis. The presence of IgM antibody to hepatitis A virus is good evidence for acute hepatitis A. IgM antibody develops within a week of symptom onset, peaks in three months, and is usually gone after six months. The virus is found in contaminated water and feces. Hepatitis A does not produce a chronic infection.
This test is used in the differential diagnosis of hepatitis or in conjunction with anti-HAV, IgM to confirm immunity to hepatitis A. Measures both IgG and IgM forms of the antibody. Does not differentiate between these two forms. Hepatitis A antibody of IgG type is indicative of old infection and is found in almost 50% of adults.
Hepatitis B is a STD that is caused by the Hepatitis B virus (HBV). Symptoms of Hepatitis B are: appetite loss, low-grade fever, muscle and joint aches, nausea and vomiting, yellow skin and dark urine due to jaundice. It can be transmitted through sexual intercourse, sharing needles, and from mother to child. The severity of the disease ranges from mild or acute symptoms to more long term and severe cases that can cause liver disease or liver cancer. The Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for those who have not been previously vaccinated. This test looks for IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen and is a reliable marker for acute hepatitis B infection. At times this is the only marker present in the diagnosis of hepatitis B viral infection. This test can also be used to detect previous exposure in an individual who has become immune compromised.
Hepatitis B is a STD that is caused by the Hepatitis B virus (HBV). Symptoms of Hepatitis B are: appetite loss, low-grade fever, muscle and joint aches, nausea and vomiting, yellow skin and dark urine due to jaundice. It can be transmitted through sexual intercourse, sharing needles, and from mother to child. The severity of the disease ranges from mild or acute symptoms to more long term and severe cases that can cause liver disease or liver cancer. The Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for those who have not been previously vaccinated. This test looks for the presence of anti-HBs. The presence of anti-HBs can show clinical recovery and subsequent immunity to hepatitis B. Also used to monitor chronic infection and its treatment.
Hepatitis B is a STD that is caused by the Hepatitis B virus (HBV). Symptoms of Hepatitis B are: appetite loss, low-grade fever, muscle and joint aches, nausea and vomiting, yellow skin and dark urine due to jaundice. It can be transmitted through sexual intercourse, sharing needles, and from mother to child. The severity of the disease ranges from mild or acute symptoms to more long term and severe cases that can cause liver disease or liver cancer. The Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for those who have not been previously vaccinated. The Hepatitis B Surface Antigen test is the earliest indicator of acute infection, while it also indicates chronic infection as well. This test can help to detect the presence of a protein antigen that is produced by HBV sometimes before symptoms even occur.
Hepatitis B is a STD that is caused by the Hepatitis B virus (HBV). Symptoms of Hepatitis B are: appetite loss, low-grade fever, muscle and joint aches, nausea and vomiting, yellow skin and dark urine due to jaundice. It can be transmitted through sexual intercourse, sharing needles, and from mother to child. The severity of the disease ranges from mild or acute symptoms to more long term and severe cases that can cause liver disease or liver cancer. The Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for those who have not been previously vaccinated. This test detects hepatitis B viral genetic material Can detect an active HBV infection Its primary use is to monitor antiviral therapy in patients with chronic HBV infections
Hepatitis B is a STD that is caused by the Hepatitis B virus (HBV). Symptoms of Hepatitis B are: appetite loss, low-grade fever, muscle and joint aches, nausea and vomiting, yellow skin and dark urine due to jaundice. It can be transmitted through sexual intercourse, sharing needles, and from mother to child. The severity of the disease ranges from mild or acute symptoms to more long term and severe cases that can cause liver disease or liver cancer. The Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended for those who have not been previously vaccinated. This test detects hepatitis B viral genetic material Can detect an active HBV infection Its primary use is to monitor antiviral therapy in patients with chronic HBV infections.
This test includes: Detection of HCV. This test is used to detect and confirm hepatitis C virus infection.
Hepatitis C is a disease caused by hepatitis C virus (HCV). Symptoms of Hepatitis C are: abdominal pain (right upper abdomen), bleeding varices,(dilated veins in the esophagus), dark urine, fatigue, generalized itching, jaundice, loss of appetitie, low-grade fever, nausea, pale or clay-colored stools and vomiting. It affects the liver and can cause cirrhosis which can sometimes lead to liver cancer. According to the CDC, hepatitis C virus is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the United States. Hepatitis C is spread through infected blood. This can happen through sharing needles, for example. The Hepatitis C Antibody test is the most common test for HCV. This test will show if you have been exposed to the virus. There is not currently a vaccine against HCV.
Test Includes: Detection of HCV (with quantitation on positives). If reflex testing is performed, additional charges/CPT code(s) may apply. This test is used to detect: HCV infection; determine the quantity of international units (IU) of hepatitis C virus (HCV) RNA/mL serum or plasma in HCV-positive specimens
This assay, for in vitro use, is intended for the genotyping of hepatitis C virus (HCV) in human serum and plasma. This test allows genotyping of the six major HCV types and their most common subtypes.
Bilirubin is a brownish yellow substance found in bile. Bilirubin is produced when the liver breaks down hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying substance in red blood cells.
The total protein test is an approximate measure of all of the proteins in the plasma portion of your blood. Proteins are important building blocks of all cells and tissues; they are important for body growth and health. Total proteins are used to evaluate your nutritional status or to screen for certain liver and kidney disorders as well as other diseases.
Zinc deficiency is usually accompanied by decreased urine zinc excretion. Zinc deficiency, however, may be in part due to excess urine losses, especially in cirrhosis, hemolytic anemias, sickle cell disease, alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic renal diseases.Zinc poisoning through inhalation of zinc oxide fumes or dust often produces symptoms of respiratory tract irritation, chest pain and cough, fatigue, headache, nausea, fever, and muscle pain.3 Zinc is utilized as an alloying agent in brass and other metals, as well as in metal plating. Zinc chloride is often produced in the chemical smoke generators that are employed in industry. Zinc chloride is also used in soldering fluxes and wood preservatives.
The blood amylase test helps to diagnose and monitor acute or chronic pancreatitis (inflammation of the pancreas) and other disorders that may involve the pancreas.
A blood test for CEA is often used as a tumor marker and helps determine the stage and extent of disease and the outlook in patients with cancer, especially gastrointestinal (GI) and, in particular, colorectal cancer. CEA is also used as a marker for other forms of cancer. It has been found helpful in monitoring patients with cancer of the rectum, lung, breast, liver, pancreas, stomach, and ovary.
This test is commonly used to check for tissue damage or monitor the progress of tissue damage. LDH is an enzyme that is present in tissue cells and is released when there is damage to the cells.
A test to help diagnose and monitor acute pancreatitis (inflammation of the pancreas), chronic pancreatitis, and other disorders that involve the pancreas.
This test is intended for noninvasive assessment of liver status in patients with alcoholic liver disease. Quantitative results of 10 biochemicals in combination with age, gender, height, and weight are analyzed using a computational algorithm to provide a quantitative surrogate marker (0.0-1.0) of liver fibrosis (Metavir F0-F4), hepatic steatosis (0.0-1.0, S0-S3), and alcoholic steatohepatitis (ASH) (0.0-1.0, H0-H3).ASH FibroSURE is recommended for patients with suspected alcoholic liver disease. It is not recommended for patients with other liver diseases. It is also not recommended in patients with Gilbert disease, acute hemolysis, acute hepatitis, acute inflammation of the liver, extrahepatic cholestasis, transplant patients, and/or renal insufficiency patients. Any of these clinical situations may lead to inaccurate quantitative predictions of fibrosis.Patient should be fasting for at least eight hours.
This test is used to isolate and identify potentially pathogenic organisms causing bacteremia(bacteria in the blood stream). A blood culture is useful in determining a systemic infection. Infections in the blood are most commonly caused by bacteria, but can also be caused by yeast or other fungus or virus. This test requires special instructions and may require more than one venipuncture depending on the particular clinical condition you are evaluating.
This test is used to establish evidence of infection and/or exposure to Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of whooping cough. Pertussis is highly contagious and complications can lead to encephalitis, seizures, or pneumonia. Individuals with an acute infection develop IgG, IgM, and IgA antibodies to fimbrial agglutinogens, and IgM and IgA antibodies are probably diagnostic. Following vaccination, IgG and IgM antibodies can be demonstrated, except in infants. Those at the highest risk for pertussis are children that are too young to be vaccinated for it or those who have not completed the series of vaccinations yet.
This test will detect IgG antibodies to Brucella abortus. This bacteria is the causative organism for the condition, Brucellosis. Individuals become infected with brucellosis by coming in contact with infected animals or animal products that have been contaminated by this bacteria. The three most common methods of transmission to humans is by eating or drinking something that is infected with the bacteria, inhalation of the bacteria, or having the bacteria enter through skin wounds. This test uses enzyme immunoassay (EIA) to detect the antibodies in human sera.
This test will detect IgM antibodies to Brucella abortus. This bacteria is the causative organism for the condition, Brucellosis. Individuals become infected with brucellosis by coming in contact with infected animals or animal products that have been contaminated by this bacteria. The three most common methods of transmission to humans is by eating or drinking something that is infected with the bacteria, inhalation of the bacteria, or having the bacteria enter through skin wounds. This test uses enzyme immunoassay (EIA) to detect the antibodies in human sera.
This test is used to diagnose systemic candidiasis. Candida(a fungus) normally occur in the mouth, vagina, and GI tract of many individuals. However, in an individual with a weakened immune system candida is able to grow and thus cause an infection. This test has a limited sensitivity of 50%.
This test includes:Deamidated gliadin IgA; tissue transglutaminase IgA (tTG) antibodies; total IgA. This test is used in the diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathies. Celiac disease is a gluten enteropathy occurring in both children and adults. The disease is probably underdiagnosed in that it may affect as much as 1% of the population in the United States. The condition is characterized by a sensitivity to gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) that causes inflammation and atrophy of the villi of the small intestine, malabsorption, etc. This sensitivity to gluten may also be seen in dermatitis herpetiformis. Strict avoidance of gluten in the diet will control disease activity, and antibodies to serum markers will disappear with time.
Evaluate electrolytes, acid-base balance, water balance. Chloride generally increases and decreases with plasma or serum sodium. Chloride is increased in dehydration, with ammonium chloride administration, with renal tubular acidosis (hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis) and with excessive infusion of normal saline. Differential diagnosis of acidemias and alkalemias. Chloride is higher in hyperparathyroidism than in some of the other causes of hypercalcemia, but a great deal of overlap exists. Chloride is decreased with overhydration, congestive failure, syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH, vomiting, gastric suction, chronic respiratory acidosis, Addison disease, salt-losing nephritis, burns, metabolic alkalosis, and in some instances of diuretic therapy.
This test is used to diagnose coccidioidomycosis, which is a fungal disease, mostly found in the Southwestern United States. Also known as Valley Fever, it is most commonly contracted from the soil where this fungus grows. It can also be contracted from inhaling the spores.
This test is used to aid in establishing the presence of Cryptococcus neoformans infection. The cryptococcal antigen test is positive in about 85% to 90% of cryptococcal meningitis. Its sensitivity reaches 95% in patients with AIDS. Cryptococcus neoformans is most commonly found in bird droppings and dirt.
This test will assess immunity against tetanus and diptheria by determining levels of circulating antibodies. This test can be used to measure the immune response, postvaccination,and in individuals suspected of immunodeficiency disorders. Diptheria is a respiratory disease caused by bacteria that is transmitted through coughing or sneezing. Tetanus is a disease of the central nervous system that is contracted by a break in the skin.
This test is used in the diagnosis of celiac disease. Endomysial Antibody, IgA is a Anti-transglutaminase antibody(anti-tTG). Antibodies to tissue transglutaminase (ATA or anti-tTG) are found in patients with celiac disease. ATA are involved in the destruction of the villous extracellular matrix and target the destruction of intestinal villous epithelial cells by killer cells. Deposits of anti-tTG in the intestinal epithelium predict celiac disease.
This test will measure levels of the EBV antibodies in the blood stream. The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), is a member of the herpes virus family and can cause infectious mononucleosis. EBV is a very common disease that most persons will acquire during their lifetime. This test is also performed when an asymptomatic person has been exposed to mononucleosis.
Gastrin is a hormone produced by special cells (called antral G cells) in the lining of the stomach. When food enters the stomach, rising levels of gastrin in the blood trigger the release of stomach acid (gastric acid) that helps break down and digest food. Gastrin helps the pancreas produce enzymes for digestion and helps the liver produce bile. It also stimulates the intestines to help move food through the digestive tract. Must fast overnight for 12-14 hours.
H. Pylori: this test is looking for evidence of an infection by a bacterium, known as Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is now known to be a major cause of Peptic Ulcer Disease. H. Pylori is also associated with the development of gastric cancer. IgG: test to see if you have been exposed to the bacterium that causes Lyme disease. IgM and IgA antibodies: antibodies are part of the body's immune system. Immunoglobulin proteins help protect us against microscopic invaders such as viruses, bacteria, chemicals, or toxins.
This test is used for the measurement of specific IgG antibodies against Haemophilus influenzae. HIB is the organism that causes a wide range of in infections in children under 5 years of age. The most serious conditions include meningitis, epiglottis, pneumonia and septic arthritis. Therefore the measurement of these antibodies will help to determine immunity to this organism after appropriate immunizations.
This test is used to detect IgG antibodies specific to the Herpes Simplex Virus(HSV) type 2. Antibodies to HSV are specific proteins that the body creates and releases into the bloodstream to fight the infection. Antibody testing can confirm a possible infection with the herpes simplex type 2 virus in an individual who may have an infection either with or without outward symptoms. It can also be used to test prenatal clients in whom an HSV 2 infection can cause serious prenatal disease. In individuals with no history of outward lesions present, a positive result for this test may indicate that the primary infection was asymptomatic(without lesions). Once infected by the HSV, it is possible for an individual to shed and therefore spread the virus even without having the characteristic lesions of this disease. This is commonly referred to as asymptomatic shedding.
This test is used to detect antibodies for specific for Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent for Lyme Disease. This test provides both IgM and IgG Western blot results. There is increased specificity that reduces cross-reactivity from other spirochetes. The sensitivity of a Western blot assay by itself is not sufficient to assess Lyme infection adequately therefore both the EIA and Western blot tests should be performed.
This test aids in the diagnosis of acute and later stages Lyme disease. Lyme disease is an infection caused by the bite of an infected tick. Borrelia burgdorferi is the bacteria found in this tick that causes Lyme disease. symptoms associated with Lyme disease may include arthritis-like joint pain, fever, headache, muscle aches, fatigue, and stiff neck.
This test is used to determine immunity to mumps virus.
Tuberculosis is a contagious bacterial infections that affects the lungs but may spread to other organs. Symptoms of tuberculosis are: unexplained weight loss, fatigue, fever, night sweats, chills, loss of appetite, coughing that lasts more than three weeks or more, coughing up blood, chest pain, or pain with breathing or coughing. It is spread through the air when individuals cough, sneeze or spit. Treatment is very difficult and long. This is very common in other parts of the world and those who are immune compromised, such as individuals with HIV or AIDS are more susceptible to contracting it. QuantiFERON-TB Gold test is a blood test used to detect tuberculosis. Advantages are there is only a single visit to the draw center to give blood. Unlike the skin test you must go into the office and get the skin test and then come back to the office to find out your results. Results may take 7-10 business days to post in your account.
This test is used to determine if you have sufficient rubella (German Measles) antibodies to protect you from the rubella virus; to verify a past infection or detect a recent infection. We measure the presence of rubella antibodies in the blood. Antibodies are proteins that the body creates in response to an infection or exposure to a microorganism or other foreign substance. Rubella antibodies are produced in response to an infection by the rubella virus.
This test is used to determine if you have sufficient rubeola (measles) antibodies to protect you from the rubeola virus; to verify a past infection or detect a recent infection. We measure the presence of rubeola antibodies in the blood. Antibodies are proteins that the body creates in response to an infection or exposure to a microorganism or other foreign substance. Rubeola antibodies are produced in response to an infection by the rubeola virus.
This test is used to detect bacterial pathogenic organisms in the stool; it will aid in the diagnosis of typhoid fever, enteric fever, bacillary dysentery, and/or Salmonella infection. Indications for stool culture include one or several of the following symptoms; bloody diarrhea, fever, recent travel to a third world country with stool changes, and know exposure to a diarrheal illness or food borne illness.
This stool test is used to isolate and identify an infection caused by the Vibrio bacterial species. This test is separate for a rountine "Stool Culture" because special methods are required to culture and test this organism.
This stool test is used to isolate and identify an infection caused by the Yersinia enterocolitica bacterial species. This test is separate for a rountine "Stool Culture" because special methods are required to culture and test this organism.
This stool test is used to detect an intestinal infection due to certain parasitic organisms. It should be noted that there are certain parasites commonly identified in the stool of AIDS patients include Cryptosporidium, Isospora, Entamoeba histolytica, and Giardia lamblia. This routine ova and parasite study does test for this organism. If these test are requested please contact: 1-888-GET-LABS.
A urinalysis is a routine test that is used to check the urine pH, color, and appearance, as well as checking it for glucose, bilirubin, ketones, etc. Urinalysis is used to evaluate or determine diabetes, urinary tract infections and kidney problems, as well as other infections.
A urine culture is used to detect urinary tract infections. It detects and identifies bacteria and yeast in the urine. Symptoms of a UTI are: pain and burning while urinating and frequent urge to urinate.
This test is used to determine if you have sufficient Varicella-Zoster (Chicken Pox) antibodies to protect you from the Varicella Virus; to verify a past infection or detect a recent infection. We measure the presence of varicella antibodies in the blood. Antibodies are proteins that the body creates in response to an infection or exposure to a microorganism or other foreign substance. Varicella antibodies are produced in response to an infection by the Varicella Virus.
West Nile Virus is a rapidly emerging arbovirus transmitted primarily by mosquitoes. The primary hosts for West Nile Virus are birds, most often crows and blue jays. Mosquitoes that feed on infected birds can transmit the disease to humans. Humans and other animals, especially horses serve as incidental hosts. Approximately 1 in 5 individuals infected with West Nile Virus demonstrate symptoms, and 1 in 150 shows CNS involvement. This test is used as an aid to the diagnosis of West Nile virus encephalitis. This test measures both IgM and IgG antibodies.
This test measures the amount of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) in the blood. ACTH is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland. The pituitary creates ACTH and releases it to stimulate the production of cortisol by the adrenal glands (small organs located at the top of each kidney). Cortisol is important for regulating glucose, protein, and lipid metabolism; suppressing the immune system’s response; and maintaining blood pressure. Normally, ACTH increases when cortisol is low and falls when cortisol is high.
Decsription:Evaluate patients with hypertension and possible hyperaldosteronism.
Renal function test; estimate glomerular filtration rate (GFR); evaluate renal function in small or wasted subjects; follow possible progression of renal disease; adjust dosages of medications in which renal excretion is pivotal (eg, aminoglycosides, methotrexate, cisplatin) Exercise may cause increased creatinine clearance. Avoid cephalosporins. Drink water before the clearance is begun, and continue good hydration throughout the clearance. If possible, drugs should be stopped beforehand.
Renal function test when used as part of creatinine clearance; crude marker for completeness of 24-hour urine collections when collected for other purposes.Complete urine collections require vigilance on the part of nursing personnel. Ingestion of meat may increase creatinine values of urine collections as well as serum creatinine values. Drugs interfering with tubular creatinine secretion include cimetidine, trimethoprim, and probenecid. Creatinine reabsorption occurs with very low urine flow rates. Entities in which reabsorption occurs include severe congestive heart failure, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, and acute renal failure.
Creatinine test is used to determine if your kidneys are functioning properly or to monitor treatment for kidney disease. A renal function test, providing a rough approximation of glomerular filtration.
Test Includes: Carbon dioxide; chloride; potassium; sodium
BUN; BUN:creatinine ratio; calcium, serum; carbon dioxide, total; chloride, serum; creatinine, serum; glucose, serum; potassium, serum; sodium, serum. Patient should fast for 12 hours preceding collection of specimen.
High BUN occurs in chronic glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis and other causes of chronic renal disease; with acute renal failure, decreased renal perfusion (prerenal azotemia) as in shock. With urinary tract obstruction BUN increases (postrenal azotemia), for example as caused by neoplastic infiltration of the ureters, hyperplasia or carcinoma of the prostate. BUN is useful to follow hemodialysis and other therapy. ”Uremia” was defined by Luke as an expression of a constellation of signs and symptoms in patients with severe azotemia secondary to acute or chronic renal failure.1 Causes of increased BUN include severe congestive heart failure, catabolism, tetracyclines with diuretic use, hyperalimentation, ketoacidosis, and dehydration as in diabetes mellitus, but even moderate dehydration can cause BUN to increase. Corticosteroids tend to increase BUN by causing protein catabolism. Bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract is an important cause of high urea nitrogen, commonly accompanied by elevation of BUN:creatinine ratio. Nephrotoxic drugs must be considered. Borderline high values may occur after recent ingestion of high protein meal and muscle wasting may cause an elevation as well. With creatinine, BUN is used to monitor patients on dialysis. Low BUN occurs in normal pregnancy, decreased protein intake, with intravenous fluids, with some antibiotics, and in some but not all instances of liver disease.
PTH is secreted in response to decrease in serum calcium levels by increasing the renal reabsorption of calcium and lowering reabsorption of phosphorus. The measurement of PTH is a very useful tool in the differential diagnosis and management of hypercalcemia.
Reverse T3 can be used to evaluate individuals with low T3, and to evaluate metabolism and thyroid function.
This test is used as a complementary study when evaualting thyroid function. Free T4 may be indicated when binding globulin (TBG) problems are perceived, or when conventional test results seem inconsistent with clinical observations. It is normal in subjects with high thyroxine-binding globulin hormone binding who are euthyroid (ie, free thyroxine should be normal in nonthyroidal diseases). It should be normal in familial dysalbuminemic hyperthyroxinemia.
This test is used for the differential diagnose of hypothyroidism and thyroiditis.
This is a thyroid profile that includes: Free thyroxine index; T3 uptake (THBR); thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH); thyroxine (T4)
This test is used to distinguish between high T4 levels due to hyperthyroidism and due to increased binding by TBG in euthyroid individuals who have normal levels of free hormones; document cases of hereditary deficiency or increase of TBG; work-up of thyroid disease. In patients with low T4, high T3 (uptake) or the reverse, who clinically seem eumetabolic and have normal FTI, measurement of TBG is only occasionally needed. Some such patients may have hereditary anomalies of TBG. TBG is increased by estrogens, tamoxifen, pregnancy, perphenazine, and in some cases of liver disease, including hepatitis. Decreased TBG is found with some instances of chronic liver disease, nephrosis and systemic disease, and with large amounts of glucocorticoids, androgens/anabolic steroids, and acromegaly. Although alterations of TBG are usually resolved by the thyroid profile, TBG must occasionally be directly measured.
This test is used to evaluate thyroid function and assess abnormal binding protein disorders. Triiodothyronine (T3) normally represents only approximately 5% of the thyroid hormone and like thyroxine is almost entirely bound to the carrier proteins, with only 0.25% of the total being in the free state. Measurement of free triiodothyronine is of value in confirming the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, when an elevated free or total thyroxine level is found. Abnormal total and free triiodothyronine concentrations may appear in T3 toxicosis, in the presence of normal thyroxine levels. Free T3 levels are unaffected by carrier protein variation.
TSH is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland. TSH responds indirectly to stimulation from thyroid gland and is used determine if the thyroid gland is overactive or underactive.
This test is commonly performed to measure the strength of the immune system in an individual that has been diagnosed with HIV. Once you are diagnosed with HIV this test is performed to receive your baseline number. Then 2-8 weeks after treatment has begun it is performed every 3 months. CD4 or T-helper Cells is a type of white blood cell that fights infection. They move throughout the body helping to identify and fight off germs and bacteria that can cause infections. They are a major target of HIV which binds to the cells and then tries to kill them. The number of CD4 cells decrease as HIV advances. CD4 is the main receptor for HIV once it enters the cell. HIV binds to the surface of CD4 cell, it then enters the cell, and as CD4 tries to fight off infection and make more cells, it also makes more copies of HIV.
Chlamydia and gonorrhea are two of the most common contracted STD’s. This is a urine test that looks for either Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae through nucleic acid amplification. Chlamydia is commonly spread because many times it does not cause any symptoms. Chlamydia is treatable with antibiotics. However, if it goes untreated it can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease in women or cause infertility. In men it can cause NGU (nongonococca urethritis). This is one of the most common STD’s with approximately 1 million people affected in the United States alone. Symptoms in women: 3/4 of women show no symptoms, abnormal vaginal discharge, burning sensation when urinating, lower abdominal pain, low back pain, nausea, fever, pain during intercourse and bleeding between menstrual periods. Symptoms in Men: Half of men show no symptoms, discharge from penis, burning sensation when urinating, burning and itching around the opening of the penis. Gonorrhea is another common STD that according to the CDC has 700,000 new cases each year. The CDC also reports that the highest incidence of gonorrhea occurs in sexually active teenagers, young adults, and African Americans. This is another one of the STD’s that can occur with little to no symptoms, that is why it is so important to get tested. Complications also include pelvic inflammatory disease in women if left untreated.
Chlamydia is a commonly contracted STD. Symptoms in Women: 3/4 of women show no symptoms, abnormal vaginal discharge, burning sensation when urinating, lower abdominal pain, low back pain, nausea, fever, pain during intercourse, and bleeding between menstrual periods. Symptoms in Men: Half of men show no symptoms, discharge from penis, burning sensation when urinating, and burning and itching around the opening of the penis. It is commonly spread because many times there are no symptoms. Chlamydia is treatable with antibiotics. If chlamydia is left untreated it can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease, PID, or cause infertility. In men if left untreated can cause NGU (nongonococcal urethritis). One of the most common STD’s with approximately 1 million people affected in the U.S. alone. This test looks for IgG antibodies to C trachomatis, C pneumoniae, and C psittaci.
Chlamydia is a commonly contracted STD. Symptoms in women: 3/4 of women show no symptoms, abnormal vaginal discharge, burning sensation when urinating, lower abdominal pain, low back pain, nausea, fever, pain during intercourse, and bleeding between menstrual periods. Symtoms in men: Half of men show no symptoms, discharge from penis, burning sensation when urinating, and burning and itching around the opening of the penis. It is commonly spread because many times there are no symptoms. Chlamydia is treatable with antibiotics. If left untreated it can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease, or PID, in women or cause infertility. In men if left untreated it can cause NGU (nongonococcal urethritis).One of the most common STD’s with approximately 1 million people affected in the U.S. alone. This test looks for Chlamydia trachomatis Antibodies, IgM.
Quantitative detection of IgG antibodies specific to HSV type 1 infection; confirm or rule out possible infection with herpes simplex type 1 virus in prenatal patients. In a patient with no history of lesion disease, a positive result for this test may be indicative that the primary infection was asymptomatic. Once infected by HSV, it is possible for a patient to shed virus without the development of lesions (asymptomatic shedding). This test does not indicate the site of HSV infection.
This test is used detect IgG antibodies to either HSV-1 and/or HSV-2. Conventional HSV-1 and HSV-2 assays cannot differentiate HSV type 1 from HSV type 2 infection due to the extensive homology of viral antigens. Antibodies formed against either virus are highly cross reactive. These HSV type-specific IgG assays are based on purified recombinant glycoprotein G-1 (HSV-1) or G-2 (HSV-2) antigens. Moreover, each assay is highly sensitive and specific and will not detect antibodies to the other HSV type. The herpes simplex virus can be passed from person to person through skin contact while the sores are open and healing and sometimes asymptomatically when there are no visible sores. HSV-2 is frequently a sexually transmitted disease, but HSV-1 also may be acquired during oral sex and found in the genital area. According to the American Social Health Association and their National Herpes Resource Center, about 50% to 80% of adults in the U.S. have HSV-1 and about 20% have HSV-2. Because symptoms may be mild, 90% of those who have HSV-2 may be unaware that they have been infected.
Herpes Simplex Virus 1&2 IgM tests for an acute infection with either HSV1 or HSV2. HSV1 is what is commonly referred to as “cold sores” whereas HSV2 is known as genital herpes. Symptoms of HSV1 are blister on the lip and edge of the mouth, a sore mouth that makes eating, drinking, and sleeping uncomfortable, fever, sore throat swollen lymph nodes in the neck, drooling, in small children. Genital herpes is a very common STD that is spread through sexual intercourse. Since this primarily occurs without signs of any symptoms, individuals can have this and not know it. It is reported by the CDC that 1 in 5 U.S. teens or adults have genital herpes. Since this test is testing for IgM antibodies it is for more recent exposure. IgM are the first antibodies that are produced in response to HSV infection. After the IgM antibody levels drop off IgG antibodies are then produced.
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) causes the immune system to become weakened and eventually develops into AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). Early infection symptoms of HIV are: when first infected you may have no symptoms at all, however it is common to develop a brief flu-like illness two to four weeks after becoming infected, fever, headache, sore throat, swollen lymph glands, and rash. Later infection symtoms of HIV are: swollen lymph nodes, diarrhea, weight loss, fever,cough and shortness of breath. HIV infects the CD4 white blood cells which then cause an individual to be more susceptible to other infections and diseases. The different ways that HIV can be contracted is through sexual transmission, infected blood, needle sharing, mother to child, and in rare cases through organ or tissue transplants or unsterilized surgical or dental equipment. The HIV by PCR test can detect the presence of HIV at 28 or more days after infection. Symptoms for HIV may not appear for some time therefore it is of utmost importance to get tested before you begin to show symptoms. Detect HIV-1 proviral DNA; detect and confirm antibodies to HIV-1/O/2 Results may take up to 5-7 business days to receive.
HIV or Human Immunodeficiency Virus is a sexually transmitted disease that causes AIDS. Early infection symptoms of HIV are: when first infected you may have no symptoms at all, however it is common to develop a brief flu-like illness two to four weeks after becoming infected, fever, headache, sore throat, swollen lymph glands, rash, Later infection symtoms of HIV are: swollen lymph nodes, diarrhea, weight loss, fever, cough and shortness of breath. HIV can be transmitted through blood, semen, vaginal fluid, and breast milk. Many of those who are infected with HIV do not know, thus increasing the reason to get tested. HIV destroys CD4, a type of white blood cell, that then leaves the immune system weakened. The most common ways of transmitting HIV is through unprotected sex and needle sharing. The CDC recommends all adults be screened for HIV at least once. Those who are high risk should be tested more often. Also, pregnant women are encouraged to get screened for HIV. This test screens for HIV antibodies that the immune system produces in response to the virus. The earlier the virus is detected the sooner treatment can begin, which improves long term health. This test will show HIV-1 antibodies.
HIV or Human Immunodeficiency Virus is a sexually transmitted disease that causes AIDS. • Early infection symptoms of HIV are: when first infected you may have no symptoms at all, however it is common to develop a brief flu-like illness two to four weeks after becoming infected, fever, headache, sore throat, swollen lymph glands and rash. • Later infection symtoms of HIV are: swollen lymph nodes, diarrhea, weight loss, fever, cough and shortness of breath. HIV can be transmitted through blood, semen, vaginal fluid, and breast milk. Many of those who are infected with HIV do not know, thus increasing the reason to get tested. HIV destroys CD4, a type of white blood cell, that then leaves the immune system weakened. The most common ways of transmitting HIV is through unprotected sex and needle sharing. The CDC recommends all adults be screened for HIV at least once. Those who are high risk should be tested more often. Also, pregnant women are encouraged to get screened for HIV. This test screens for HIV antibodies that the immune system produces in response to the virus. The earlier the virus is detected the sooner treatment can begin, which improves long term health. This test screens for HIV 1 or 2 antibodies.
HIV or Human Immunodeficiency Virus is a sexually transmitted disease that causes AIDS. Early infection symptoms of HIV are: when first infected you may have no symptoms at all, however it is common to develop a brief flu-like illness two to four weeks after becoming infected, fever,h eadache, sore throat, swollen lymph glandsand rash.Later infection symtoms of HIV are: swollen lymph nodes, diarrhea, weight loss, fever,cough and shortness of breath. HIV can be transmitted through blood, semen, vaginal fluid, and breast milk. Many of those who are infected with HIV do not know, thus increasing the reason to get tested. HIV destroys CD4, a type of white blood cell, that then leaves the immune system weakened. The most common ways of transmitting HIV is through unprotected sex and needle sharing. The CDC recommends all adults be screened for HIV at least once. Those who are high risk should be tested more often. Also, pregnant women are encouraged to get screened for HIV. This test screens for HIV antibodies that the immune system produces in response to the virus. The earlier the virus is detected the sooner treatment can begin, which improves long term health. This test looks for HIV 2 antibodies HIV-2 is less common than HIV-1 HIV-1 and HIV-2 package their RNA differently.
This test detects IgM specific antibodies against Human Herpes Virus Type 6 in human serum. IgM specific antibodies typically appear 3 to 10 days following infection. The antibodies are usually cleared from the individual within 3 months.
This test is used to detect and quantitate HIV-1 in plasma. This is commonly referred to as the viral load. When a person is infected with HIV, the virus replicates and produces more and more copies of itself. These copies then move into the lymph nodes, spleen, and other parts of the body. In the early stages of infection, there may not be any noticeable signs or symptoms of disease or only flu-like symptoms, although the virus is usually present in high amounts. Even when there are no symptoms, the virus continues to replicate and to damage or kill immune cells. As HIV progresses, the virus continues to replicate and the number of copies of virus, the “viral load,” increases in the blood. If you have been diagnosed with HIV, the measurement of an HIV viral load (HIV RNA) gives your healthcare provider a general indication of how much HIV is present in the body and how rapidly the virus is replicating. The test can help determine, along with a CD4 count, if and when treatment should be initiated, when to test for drug resistance, or if a different type of treatment protocol is needed. Treatment with anti-viral agents can decrease the viral load in the blood to low or undetectable levels but cannot fully eradicate it from the body.
This test is used qualitative detection of antibodies to human T-lymphotropic virus, types 1 and/or 2 (HTLV-1/HTLV-2). HTLV-1, a human type C retrovirus, is associated with adult T-cell leukemia, tropical spastic paraparesis, and other demyelinating and neoplastic conditions. More recently, HTLV-1 infection has been shown to be associated with T- and B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemias (CLL), multiple myeloma, some cases of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, polymyositis, arthritis, Kaposi sarcoma, uveitis, strongyloidiasis, and mycosis fungoides. Type 1 HTLV is irregularly distributed throughout the world, as opposed to type II virus, which is a new world virus, more common among Americans in North, Central, and South America. HTLV-2 was first isolated from a patient with T-lymphocytic hairy cell leukemia but has not been unequivocally proven to be a pathogen. Recent findings suggest that HTLV-2 may be associated with a number of other leukemias and lymphomas. A high rate of HTLV-2 seropositives has been observed among intravenous drug users. Both HTLV-1 and HTLV-2 are tropic for CD4 lymphocytes and can be transmitted by sexual contact, I.V. drug use, blood products, transplacentally, and through breast milk.
Syphilis is an STD that is very contagious and is passed through sexual intercourse, including oral and anal sex. Primary stage symptoms of syphilis are: a sore (chancre) that is usually painless develops at the site where the bacteria entered the body, in men it often appears in the genital area, usually on the penis, in women it develops on the outer genitals or on the inner part of the vagina, and swollen lymph nodes near the area of the chancre. Secondary Stage symptoms of syphilis are: rash appears 4-10 weeks after the chancre develops usually reddish brown, small, solid flat or raised skin sores that are less then 2 cm across and small open sores may be present on mucous membrane. Symptoms when syphilis has spread throughout the body are: fever of less than 101 F, sore throat, vague feeling of weakness or discomfort throughout the body, weight loss, patchy hair loss especially in the eyebrows, eyelashes, and scalp hair, and swollen lymph nodes. Many times individuals may be unaware that they have syphilis because symptoms may not appear for years. The bacteria Treponema pallidum causes syphilis. Syphilis is treatable usually, but if it is left untreated it can cause heart, brain, and bone damage. All pregnant women should be screened for syphilis, as well as many states require a syphilis test when applying for a marriage license. The CDC reports that the sores caused by syphilis make it easier to contract HIV through sexual contact. This test is used to test for and confirm syphilis infection.
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